Is a non-compete agreement binding for a subcontractor if only the subcontractor signs it?
The agreement has a place for both signatures, but the employer did not sign it, only the subcontractor.
1 answer | asked Jun 9, 2011 05:02 AM [EST] | applies to Texas
Answers (1)
A document signed by one party may be enforceable under certain circumstances (such as partial performance by the other party who did not sign). Only a Judge or jury can decide based on all the facts.
Also, sometimes a party who has signed never asks for a signed copy from the other party and that is why at first glance it looks as if only one person signed. The other party may have signed it but failed to send a fully signed copy or original to the other party.
posted by Jill J. Weinberg | Jun 26, 2011 10:24 AM [EST]
Also, sometimes a party who has signed never asks for a signed copy from the other party and that is why at first glance it looks as if only one person signed. The other party may have signed it but failed to send a fully signed copy or original to the other party.
posted by Jill J. Weinberg | Jun 26, 2011 10:24 AM [EST]
Answer This Question
Sign In to Answer this Question
Related Questions with Answers