My employer has failed to pay me for a number of months. That would seem to be a breach of the employment contract. So would a non-compete agreement that is otherwise valid still be in effect? It would seem that if the employer is unable to provide compensation for my skills I should be free to seek other employment.
2 answers | asked Aug 6, 2009 12:20 PM [EST] in Non-competition | applies to TexasAnswers (2)
I would have to see the agreement and analyze it to give you complete and proper advice.
posted by Dana LeJune | Aug 9, 2009 7:13 PM [EST]
Generally, in Texas, a valid non-compete involves (among other requirements) an employer's agreement to provide new (not past) confidential/trade secret information or/and specialized training in exchange for an employee's promise not to compete for a set time and set geographic location. It is not tied to paying an employee's wages. For this reason, failure to pay an employee does NOT invalidate the non-compete.
posted by Jill J. Weinberg | Aug 6, 2009 2:24 PM [EST]

